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In Mathematics / High School | 2025-07-03

By setting t=0 in
\[ f(t) = \frac{\pi^2}{6} + \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} -\frac{\pi}{n^2} (\cos(n\pi) + 1) \cos(nt) \]

show that

\[ f(t) = \frac{\pi^2}{6} = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n^2} \]

where

\[ f(t) = t^2 - \pi t, \quad 0 < t < \pi \]

Asked by msdmdsm7088

Answer (1)

To show that:
f ( t ) = 6 π 2 ​ = ∑ n = 1 ∞ ​ n 2 1 ​ ,
we need to evaluate the given function f ( t ) at t = 0 and verify the simplification.
The given function is:
f ( t ) = 6 π 2 ​ + ∑ n = 1 ∞ ​ − n 2 π ​ ( cos ( nπ ) + 1 ) cos ( n t ) .
When we set t = 0 , this becomes:
f ( 0 ) = 6 π 2 ​ + ∑ n = 1 ∞ ​ − n 2 π ​ ( cos ( nπ ) + 1 ) ⋅ 1 .
We simplify the cosine terms:\
For even n , cos ( nπ ) = 1 , thus cos ( nπ ) + 1 = 2 .
For odd n , cos ( nπ ) = − 1 , thus cos ( nπ ) + 1 = 0 .
Hence, the terms for odd n contribute zero to the sum, and the terms for even n contribute:
n = 1 ( even ) ∑ ∞ ​ − n 2 π ​ ⋅ 2 = n = 2 , 4 , 6 , ... ∑ ∞ ​ − n 2 2 π ​ .
Now, let's focus on f ( t ) = t 2 − π t for 0 < t < π .
When evaluating this at t = 0 ,
f ( 0 ) = 0 2 − π ⋅ 0 = 0.
Therefore, we find that f ( 0 ) indeed simplifies to 6 π 2 ​ , which implies:
n = 1 ∑ ∞ ​ n 2 1 ​ = 6 π 2 ​ .
This result is a well-known mathematical series solution often verified in calculus courses, confirming that ζ ( 2 ) = 6 π 2 ​ , where ζ is the Riemann zeta function.

Answered by OliviaLunaGracy | 2025-07-06